NR 602 FINAL EXAM 2022 – 100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED
NR 602 / NR602 FINAL EXAM 2022 – 100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED
Which one best describes lesions associated with condyloma acuminatum?
a. Verruciform b. Plaque-like c. Vesicular
39yo female has completed a course of amox for strep throat. LMP was 2wks ago, says it was normal. On exam, there’s erythema of extern. genitalia small amount of white discharge. Micro wet prep reveals few clue cells, but many budding hyphae. No WBCs. Which one would be the most appropriate treatment?
a. Metronidazole 500mg BID x7 days b. OTC hydrocortisone 1% cream TID c. Fluconazole tabs 150mg x1 dose
d. Erythromycin 500mg TID x10 days
Woman c/o vaginal itching, white discharge. She is in good health except for a recent abx for strep throat. Pelvic reveals tender vulvovaginal area w/edema and nonmalodorous white patches. Which is the most likely cause?
a. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Lactobacillus overgrowth d. Candidiasis
18yo female c/o secondary amenorrhea. On exam, there is normal secondary sex characteristics and normal genitalia. Pregnancy is ruled out. What would necessitate further eval?
a. Elevated blood cholesterol levels b. Androgen deficiency
24yo female is dx’d w/primary dysmenorrhea. Which med would be used as first-line to help control symptoms?
a. Antianxiety meds
b. Progesterone-only contraception c. Oral steroids
Primary amenorrhea is best described as:
a. Cessation of menstruation x6mo
b. Failure of menstruation to occur by 17ho
c. Failure of menstruation to occur by 13yo
d. Cessation of menstruation x6mo after menarche
25yo female c/o vaginal irritation and discharge. On exam, the cervix is easily friable and erythematous. No adnexal tenderness. Wet prep reveals mobile protozoa on the NS slide. This most likely represents:
b. Mucopurulent cervicitis c. Bacterial vaginosis