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Understanding Pathophysiology
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Home Pathophysiology test bank & Solution Manual Test Bank for Understanding Pathophysiology 7th Edition Huether
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Test Bank for Understanding Pathophysiology 7th Edition Huether

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Test Bank for Understanding Pathophysiology 7th Edition Huether

Chapter 01: Cellular Biology
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A student is observing a cell under a microscope. It is observed to have supercoiled DNA
with histones. Which of the following would also be observed by the student?
a. A single circular chromosome
b. A nucleus
c. Free-floating nuclear material
d. No organelles
ANS: B
The cell described is a eukaryotic cell, so it has histones and a supercoiled DNA within its
nucleus; thus, the nucleus should be observed. A single circular chromosome called a
prokaryote contains free-floating nuclear material but has no organelles.
2. A nurse is instructing the staff about cellular functions. Which cellular function is the nurse
describing when an isolated cell absorbs oxygen and uses it to transform nutrients to energy?
a. Metabolic absorption
b. Communication
c. Secretion
d. Respiration
ANS: D
The cell’s ability to absorb oxygen is referred to as respiration while its communication ability
involves maintenance of a steady dynamic state, metabolic absorption provides nutrition, and
secretion allows for the synthesizing of new substances.
3. A eukaryotic cell is undergoing DNA replication. In which region of the cell would most of
the genetic information be contained?
a. Mitochondria
b. Ribosome
c. Nucleolus
d. Nucleus cytoplasm
ANS: C
The region of the cell that contains genetic material, including a large amount of ribonucleic
acid, most of the DNA, and DNA-binding proteins, is the nucleolus, which is located within
the cell’s nucleus. Mitochondria is associated with cellular respiration while ribosomes are
involved with protein manufacturing. Cytoplasm is a fluid filling that is a component of the
cell.
4. Which of the following can remove proteins attached to the cell’s bilayer by dissolving the
layer itself?
a. Peripheral membrane proteins
b. Integral membrane proteins
c. Glycoproteins
d. Cell adhesion molecules
ANS: B
Proteins directly attached to the membrane bilayer can be removed by the action of integral
membrane proteins that dissolve the bilayer. Peripheral membrane proteins reside at the
surface while cell adhesion molecules are on the outside of the membrane. Glycoprotein
marks cells and does not float.
5. Which of the following can bind to plasma membrane receptors?
a. Oxygen
b. Ribosomes
c. Amphipathic lipids
d. Ligands
ANS: D
Ligands are the only specific molecules that can bind with receptors on the cell membrane.
6. A nurse is reviewing a report from a patient with metastatic cancer. What alternation in the
What extracellular matrix would support the diagnosis of metastatic cancer?
a. Decreased fibronectin
b. Increased collagen
c. Decreased elastin
d. Increased glycoproteins
ANS: A
Only a reduced amount of fibronectin is found in some types of cancerous cells, allowing
them to travel or metastasize.
7. Which form of cell communication is used to relate to other cells in direct physical contact?
a. Cell junction
b. Gap junction
c. Desmosome
d. Tight junction
ANS: A
Cell junctions hold cells together and permit molecules to pass from cell to cell. Gap junctions
allow for cellular communication between cells. Neither desmosomes nor tight junctions are
associated with cellular communication.
8. Pancreatic beta cells secrete insulin, which inhibits secretion of glucagon from neighboring
alpha cells. This action is an example of which of the following signaling types?
a. Paracrine
b. Autocrine
c. Neurohormonal
d. Hormonal
ANS: A
Paracrine signaling involves the release of local chemical mediators that are quickly taken up,
destroyed, or immobilized, as in the case of insulin and the inhibition of the secretion of
glucagon. None of the other options involve signaling that is associated with a local chemical
mediator like insulin.
9. In cellular metabolism, each enzyme has a high affinity for a:
a. solute.
b. substrate.
c. receptor.
d. ribosome.
ANS: B
Each enzyme has a high affinity for a substrate, a specific substance converted to a product of
the reaction. Cellular metabolism is not dependent on an attraction between an enzyme and
any of the remaining options.
10. An athlete runs a marathon, after which his muscles feel fatigued and unable to contract. The
athlete asks the nurse why this happened. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that
the problem is result of a deficiency of:
a. GTP.
b. AMP.
c. ATP.
d. GMP.
ANS: C
When ATP is deficient, impaired muscle contraction results. None of the other options are
involved in muscle contraction.
11. Which phase of catabolism produces the most ATP?
a. Digestion
b. Glycolysis
c. Oxidation
d. Citric acid cycle
ANS: D
While some ATP is produced during the oxidation and glycolysis phases, most of the ATP is
generated during the citric acid cycle. Digestion does not produce any ATP.
12. A nurse is teaching the staff about the phases of cellular catabolism. Which phases should the
nurse include?
a. Digestion, glycolysis, oxidation, and the citric acid cycle
b. Diffusion, osmosis, and mediated transport
c. S phase, G phase, and M phase
d. Metabolic absorption, respiration, and excretion
ANS: A
Only digestion, glycolysis, oxidation, and the citric acid cycle are the phases of cellular
catabolism.
13. A runner has depleted all the oxygen available for muscle energy. Which of the following will
facilitate his continued muscle performance?
a. Electron-transport chain
b. Aerobic glycolysis
c. Anaerobic glycolysis
d. Oxidative phosphorylation
ANS: C
When no oxygen is available, anaerobic glycolysis occurs. The electron-transport chain is part
of the citric acid cycle. Aerobic glycolysis involves the presence of oxygen. Oxidative
phosphorylation is the mechanism by which the energy produced from carbohydrates, fats,
and proteins is transferred to ATP. It is not part of muscle performance.

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